John 1:18
There are two variations in the reading of John 1:18. The following translations (KJV, NKJV, RSV, HCSB, NLT, NAB, NJB) read it as follows:
- John 1:18 (NKJV): No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son [Greek, ho monogenēs huios], who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
Other translations read it as follows:
- John 1:18 (ESV): No one has ever seen God; the only God [Greek, ho monogenēs theos], who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
From the REV Bible Commentary on John 1:18: There is a huge controversy about the original reading of this verse. As it stands, some Greek texts read “God” and some read “Son.” At some point in time the Greek text was changed, and either “Son” or “God” is original. The manuscript evidence is divided. Much has been written on this subject, and readers are invited to read some of the more scholarly books and commentaries that go deeply into the arguments.
The arguments in favor of the "only begotten son" variant are compelling. They include the following:
- Single occurrence in the Bible. There is no other reference anywhere in the Bible to the phrase, "only begotten God [Greek, ho monogenēs theos]," while there are other Johannine references to the “only begotten son” (John 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9). To fully understand that argument we must recognize that John 3:16, 18, and 1 John 4:9 have “son,” not “God” and there is no textual disagreement. So while the Bible has only begotten “Son” three times (four including John 1:18), the reading “unique God” in John 1:18 would be the only occurrence of that reading in the Bible.
- John's gospel concludes with Jesus as the Son of God. The Gospel of John closes with, “these are written so that you believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and so that by believing you will have life in his name” (John 20:31). It would be strange indeed if John chapter one said Jesus was God, but the Gospel of John closed by saying it showed that Jesus was the Son of God.
- Absence of "God" variants in the Western and Byzantine texts. The reading “God” is almost totally absent from Western and Byzantine text families, but almost exclusively in the Alexandrian tradition.
- Predominance of "Son" in Greek, Latin, Aramaic and Church Fathers. Furthermore, “Son” predominates not only in the Greek manuscripts, but in the Latin and Syriac (Aramaic) manuscripts as well, and also is predominant in the writings of the Church Fathers (although some have “God” as well).
- Redundant use of monogenēs. If monogenēs is translated as "unique" or "only" instead of "begotten", then it would be redundant, since each God of the Trinity is unique. That is, the Father and Holy Spirit are as unique as the Son. Why use "unique" in the first place?
- The concept of a "begotten [Greek, monogenēs] God" was foreign to Jews and Greeks. To the Jews, Yahweh was the one true God, who by definition was unique, and to the Greeks every god or goddess was unique in some way. Thus, the concept of a “unique god” would not have made sense in the culture, but an “only begotten Son” of God would have made sense.
- The unique God revealing (the unique) God makes no sense. According to this verse, "No one has ever seen God" and Jesus reveals Him (i.e. "he has made him known"). If you cannot see God, how could you see “the unique God?” If, on the other hand, you could see “the unique God,” why could you not see “God” too (especially since, by the definition of “unique” being used, God the Father is unique as well)? The simple answer in the verse is that the Son is not God, and so while we cannot see God, we can see the only begotten Son who has made God known.
- It was not uncommon to change Scripture to suit a theologial bias. Verses were sometimes amended to support the Trinity, as almost all modern scholars admit happened to some manuscripts of 1 John 5:7-8, and may have purposely happened in 1 Timothy 3:16. There is evidence that this also happened to Matthew 28:19.
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